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Part 105-2C FAA Advisory
Circular Sport Parachute Jumping
ADVISORY CIRCULAR
AC No: 105-2C
Date: 1/2/91
Initiated
by: AFS-340/820
Subject: SPORT PARACHUTE JUMPING
1. PURPOSE. This advisory circular (AC) provides suggestions to
improve sport parachuting safety and disseminates information to
assist all parties associated with sport parachuting in complying
with Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR) Part 105, Parachute
Jumping. It also contains a list of aircraft which may be
operated with one cabin door removed and includes procedures for
obtaining Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) authorization for
flight with the door removed.
2. CANCELLATION. AC 105-2B, Sport Parachute Jumping, dated
August 21, 1989, is cancelled. Note: Distribution of this AC
(105-2B) was not made.)
3. BACKGROUND.
a. Sport parachute jumping (also called skydiving) activity
continues to increase and is an FAA-recognized aeronautical
activity. Even though parachutists (also called skydivers) are
not certificated airmen the FAA recommends that all beginning
parachutists obtain formal training. Training should be
conducted in accordance with the United States Parachute
Association (USPA) training recommendations or by training
programs from other similar organizations.
b. Skydiving has certain inherent risks especially for
students. In response to this risk, the skydiving community has
developed procedures and practices to reduce the risk factors. A
significant level of safety can be maintained by following these
procedures and by properly preparing for each parachute jump.
Developments in parachuting continue to contribute to the
advancement of aviation technology and aviation safety.
c. In the revision process of this AC, the FAA solicited
comments from the parachute industry and users. The USPA should
be contacted for state-of-the-art information which relates to
parachute jumping that is not specifically mentioned in this AC
(see paragraph 5c).
4. SAFETY SUGGESTIONS.
a. Medical. All prospective skydivers are urged to receive
a physical examination prior to their first jump. The physician
should be informed of the purpose of the examination.
b. Initial Training. The FAA encourages beginning
parachutists to seek instruction from a parachuting instructor
recognized by the USPA. Initial training sets the foundation for
the skydiver's continued education and advancement.
c. Current sport parachute student training programs include
the following programs, details of which can be obtained from the
USPA (see paragraph 5c).
(1) The static line progression method.
(2) The accelerated free fall progression method.
(3) Tandem jumping, which uses a dual harness and dual
pack parachute system.
d. FAR, technical standard orders (TSO), and AC's on sport
parachuting with which all skydivers and jump pilots should be
familiar:
(1) FAR Part 65 -- Certification: Airmen Other Than
Flight Crewmembers.
(2) FAR Part 91 -- General Operating and Flight Rules.
(3) FAR Part 105 -- Parachute Jumping.
(4) FAR Part 149 -- Parachute Lofts.
(5) TSO-C23c, Personnel Parachute Assemblies.
(6) AC 65-5 (latest edition), Parachute
Rigger -- Senior/Master Certification Guide.
(7) AC 140-7 (latest edition), Federal Aviation
Administration Certificated Maintenance Agencies Directory.
Note: See paragraph 5 for more detailed information.
e. Safety Devices and Equipment.
(1) Deployment Assist Device. FAR Section 105.43(b)
requires all persons making a parachute jump with a static line
attached to the aircraft and the main parachute to use an assist
device to aid the pilot chute in performing its function or, if
no pilot chute is used, to aid in the direct deployment of the
main parachute canopy.
(2) Automatic Activation Devices. A jumper may have a
tendency to feel more at ease if equipped with an automatic
activation device (AAD). However, experience shows that such
devices may not be completely reliable and should be used only as
a backup to proper training and procedures. Skydivers who use an
AAD on their reserve/auxiliary parachute should ensure that the
installation of such a device has been approved by the parachute
manufacturer or the FAA (see paragraph 8). The FAA does not
approve AAD's. They do approve the installation which is
submitted with the manufacturer's TSO paperwork. The
manufacturer's instructions for installation should be followed.
The installation of an AAD to a TSO or military specification
(MIL-SPEC)-approved parachute constitutes a major alteration to
that parachute. A jumper who uses any type of AAD should be
aware of its level of reliability and become fully proficient
with the device. A prejump check should be made for proper
setting, arming, and operational reliability to ensure proper
functioning of the AAD. When the situation requires use of the
reserve parachute, the jumper should always manually pull the
reserve/auxiliary ripcord even when using an AAD.
(3) Water Safety Equipment. Some type of flotation gear
should be worn whenever the intended exit point, or landing point
of a skydiver is within 1 mile of an open body of water.
(4) Oxygen Equipment. jumpers should use supplemental
breathing oxygen when the jump aircraft is at altitudes above
10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) for more than 30 minutes.
Oxygen must be used continuously at all times above 15,000 feet
MSL. Above 25,000 MSL, pressure demand oxygen systems should be
used. High altitude jumps should be made only after first
becoming familiar with the problems and hazards created by low
temperatures, lack of oxygen, and the various types of oxygen
equipment. High altitude jumps should not be attempted under any
circumstances without an adequate supply of breathing oxygen
(welding and medical oxygen is unsafe and should not be used).
f. Weather. Strong or gusty winds can be dangerous
especially to student jumpers. In addition, skydivers and pilots
should ensure that there is adequate ceiling and visibility (see
paragraph 14i).
g. Advanced Parachuting. Many of the safety suggestions
presented in this AC are intended primarily for the student
parachutist. All student jumps should be made in a controlled
training environment. Individual experience and judgement
dictate what additional training should be obtained before
undertaking more advanced parachuting activities. Acquire proper
experience and training before using unfamiliar or high-
performance parachute equipment.
5. INFORMATION ON REGULATIONS AND ASSOCIATED PUBLICATIONS.
a. FAR. This paragraph describes the FAR parts which are of
interest to skydivers and jump aircraft pilots. They may be
purchased from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government
Printing Office, Washington, D.C. 20402-9325. AC 00-44 (latest
edition), Status of Federal Aviation Regulation, contains
ordering instructions, prices, and stock numbers. This AC is
based on FAR requirements in effect on the date of this AC.
Since the FAR may be amended at any time, skydivers and pilots
should keep up with changes in the FAR and always comply with
current requirements.
(1) FAR Part 65 -- Certification: Airmen Other Than
Flight Crewmembers. Subpart F concerns parachute riggers, their
eligibility requirements, privileges and performance standards.
(2) FAR Part 91 -- General Operating and Flight Rules.
FAR Section 91.307, Parachutes and Parachuting, prohibits a pilot
of a civil aircraft from allowing an emergency parachute to be
carried aboard that aircraft unless it is an approved type.
(3) FAR Part 105 -- Parachute Jumping. This part is
especially important to parachutists and to the pilots who fly
them since it contains the rules on intentional parachute
jumping.
b. TSO-C23c sets forth the minimum performance and safety
requirements for parachutes. TSO-C23c may be obtained by writing
to the FAA, Aircraft Certification Service, Aircraft Engineering
Division (AIR-100), 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington,
D.C. 20591.
c. The USPA has developed basic safety standards and
additional information for skydiving activities. These standards
and information are for training, checking equipment, and
conducting a wide variety of sport parachuting activities. While
not officially approved by the FAA, these standards are widely
used for guidance by individuals and parachute centers. They may
be obtained from the United States Parachute Association, 1440
Duke Street, Alexandria, Virginia 22314, telephone (703) 836-
3495.
6. PARACHUTE RULES. FAR Section 1.1 defines a parachute as a
device used or intended to be used to retard the fall of a body
or object through the air. For the purposes of this AC, a
parachute assembly normally, but not exclusively, consists of the
following major components: a canopy, a deployment device, a
pilot chute and/or drogue, risers, a stowage container, a
harness(es), and an actuation device (ripcord). There are, of
course, some lesser parts associated with these main components
such as connector links, bridles, and hardware. The term pack
(such as backpack or chestpack), when used in this AC, refers to
the parachute assembly less the harness. In the case where the
harness and parachute are TSO-approved as an intended component,
the term pack refers to the complete parachute assembly, less the
main canopy and risers. This distinction is essential for a
clear understanding relating to the use, packing, repairing, and
alteration of parachutes.
a. Parachute Equipment. FAR Section 105.43 requires a
parachutist making an intentional jump to wear a single harness
dual pack parachute having at least one main parachute and one
approved auxiliary/reserve parachute. The main pack need not be
an approved type, but the auxiliary/reserve pack and the harness
are required to be an FAA-approved type. The FAA issues a TSO
which specifies the minimum performance standard for materials,
parts, processes, or appliances used on civil aircraft. (See FAR
Part 43, Appendix A(4).) The following are examples of approved
parachutes as explained in FAR Section 105.43(d).
(1) Parachutes manufactured under a type certificate (an
early method of approval).
(2) Parachutes manufactured under TSO-C23. This TSO,
the most recent version of which is TSO-C23c, prescribes the
minimum performance and quality assurance standards for a
parachute which is carried aboard civil aircraft or by skydivers
for emergency use. The manufacturer must meet these standards
before labeling its parachute or components as complying with the
TSO.
(3) Military parachutes (other than high altitude, high
speed, or ejection kinds) are identified by a Naval Air Facility
(NAF), Army Air Field (AAF), or Air Force-Navy (AFN) drawing
number, an AAF order number, or any other military designation or
specification number. These parachutes are often referred to as
demilitarized or military surplus parachutes.
7. PARACHUTE PACKING. FAR Section 105.43 requires that a
certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger pack the
reserve/auxiliary parachute. The main parachute may be packed
by: (1) any certificated parachute rigger; or (2) anyone under
the supervision of a certificated parachute rigger. However,
only those who have been thoroughly checked out by a certificated
parachute rigger or USPA-rated instructor should attempt to pack
for themselves. The FAA requires each parachute to be packed as
follows:
a. A certificated parachute rigger or the person making the
jump must have packed the main parachute within 120 days before
the date of its use.
b. A certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger
must have packed the auxiliary/reserve parachute:
(1) Within 120 days before the date of use, if its
canopy, shroud, and harness are composed exclusively of nylon,
rayon, or other similar synthetic fiber or material that is
substantially resistant to damage from mold, mildew, or other
rotting agents propagated in a moist environment; or
(2) Within 60 days before the date of use, if the
assembly is composed in any amount of silk, pongee, or any other
natural fiber or material not specified above.
8. PARACHUTE ALTERATIONS. Parachute alterations are changes to
the FAA-approved configuration. Examples include installation of
reenforcement tape or fittings, alteration of the harness such as
changing the size, removal of a manufacturer-installed part, or
the installation of an AAD on an auxiliary/reserve parachute
system in which the manufacturer does not authorize such
installation.
a. An alteration to an approved parachute system used for
intentional jumping must be done in accordance with approved
manuals and specifications and only by those with specific
authorization to perform that alteration. Specific approval is
not needed for the method of altering a main parachute. A person
seeking authorization to alter an approved parachute system
should proceed as follows:
(1) A person qualified to alter a parachute (as listed
below) should contact his/her local FAA Flight Standards District
Office (FSDO) inspector to discuss the proposed alteration. The
applicant should be prepared to show the inspector the nature of
the alteration by using a sample assembly, sketch or drawing, and
be prepared to discuss the nature of the tests that will be
needed to show the altered parachute meets all applicable
requirements.
(2) The inspector will review the proposal with the
applicant, and a plan of action will be agreed upon.
(3) The applicant will then prepare an application, in
letter form, addressed to the local FSDO. All pertinent data
should be attached. The data should include:
(i) A clear description of the alteration.
(ii) Drawings, sketches, or photographs if
necessary.
(iii) Information such as thread size, stitch,
pattern, materials used, and location of altered components.
(iv) Some means of identifying the altered
parachute (model and serial number).
(4) When satisfied, the inspector will indicate approval
by date stamping, signing, and placing the FSDO identification
stamp on the letter of application.
b. Alterations to Approved Parachutes may be Performed Only
By:
(1) A certificated and appropriately rated master
parachute rigger.
(2) A certificated parachute loft with an appropriate
rating.
(3) A parachute manufacturer.
(4) Any other manufacturer that the Administrator
considers to be competent.
9. REMOVAL OF PILOT CHUTE. A certificated senior or master
parachute rigger may remove the pilot chute from an
auxiliary/reserve parachute. When this is done, the parachute
must be plainly marked "PILOT CHUTE REMOVED. This parachute may
be used for intentional jumping only."
10. EXTRA EQUIPMENT. Attachment of an instrument panel, knife
sheath, or other material to the exterior of the parachute
assembly is not considered an alteration. If any extra equipment
is attached to a harness, care should be taken not to impair the
functional design of the system.
11. ASSEMBLY OF MAJOR PARACHUTE COMPONENTS.
a. The assembly or mating of approved parachute components
from different manufacturers may be made by a certificated
appropriately rated parachute rigger or parachute loft in
accordance with the parachute manufacturer's instructions and
without further authorization by the manufacturer or the FAA.
Specifically, when various parachute components are interchanged,
the parachute rigger should follow the canopy manufacturer's
instructions as well as the parachute container manufacturer's
instructions. However, the container manufacturer's instructions
take precedence when there is a conflict between the two.
b. Assembled Parachute Components Must be Compatible. Each
component of the resulting assembly must function properly and
may not interfere with the operation of the other components.
For example:
(1) Do not install a high volume canopy into a
low-volume parachute container since the proper functioning of
the entire parachute assembly could be adversely affected.
(2) A TSO'd canopy may be assembled with a demilitarized
harness, or vice versa, as long as the assembled components
comply with the safety standard of the original design.
c. Any questions about the operation of the assembly should
be resolved by actual tests by the rigger or loft to make certain
the parachute is safe for emergency use.
d. The parachute rigger or the parachute loft who are
assembling components manufactured under TSO-C23c will record, in
the space provided on the container, the data required by
Aerospace Standard AS-8015B, paragraph 4.2.1. (Copies may be
obtained from the Engineering Society for Advancing Mobility
Land, Sea, Air and Space, 400 Commonwealth Drive, Warrendale,
PA 15096-0001.)
e. The strength of the harness must always be equal to or
greater than the maximum force generated by the canopy during
certification tests.
(1) In a case where the harness is certificated under
TSO-C23b and the canopy under TSO-C23c, the maximum generated
force of the canopy must not exceed the certificated category
force of the harness and container; i.e., Low-Speed Category
(3,000 lbs.) and Standard Category (5,000 lbs.). In this
instance, no additional marking on the container is necessary.
(2) In the case where the canopy is certificated under
the TSO-C23b and the harness under TSO-C23c, the strength of the
harness must be equal to or greater than the certificated
category force of the canopy.
f. The user of a single harness, dual pack parachute
system, which is a sport assembly consisting of a main and
auxiliary/reserve parachute, may perform simple assembly and
disassembly operations necessary for transportation, handling, or
storage between periods of use if the parachute is designed to
simplify such assembly and disassembly without the use of complex
operations.
12. REPAIRS. Parachute repairs can be classed as major repairs
or minor repairs. A major repair, as defined in FAR Section 1.1,
is a repair "...that, if improperly done, might appreciably
affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance,
powerplant operation, flight characteristics, or other qualities
affecting airworthiness." (Balance and powerplant operation do
not apply to parachutes.) A minor repair, as defined in FAR
Section 1.1, "...means a repair other than a major repair."
Major repairs to parachutes may be made by a master parachute
rigger, an appropriately rated parachute loft, or a manufacturer.
Examples of major repairs are replacement of a canopy panel or
suspension line, or sewing a large patch on a canopy. The
parachute manufacturer's instructions should be followed when
completing repairs to any portion of the parachute.
13. PLATING OF FITTINGS. Plating or replating of load-carrying
parachute fittings may cause hydrogen embrittlement and
subsequent failure under stress unless the plating is done
properly. Chrome plated harness adjustment hardware may also
have a smoother finish than the original and may permit slippage.
The parachutist should be aware of these possible hazards.
14. PILOT RESPONSIBILITIES. The pilot in command of a jump
aircraft is solely responsible for certain requirements and
jointly responsible for others. The following is a partial list
of these requirements:
a. Pilot Certification and Experience Requirements. The
pilot in command is solely responsible for meeting the
certification, proficiency, and experience requirements of FAR
Part 61.
b. Operational Requirements. The pilot in command is
solely responsible for the operational requirements of FAR Part
91 to include the special operating limitations and placards
required for flight with the door open or removed.
c. Weight and Balance Procedures. The pilot in command is
solely responsible to assure that his/her aircraft is properly
loaded and operated so that it stays within gross weight and
center of gravity (CG) limitations. Additional aircraft station
position information (loading schedule) should be obtained by the
pilot in command for future weight and balance computations. In
addition, pilots are solely responsible for reviewing these
records and/or the flight manual to become familiar with an
aircraft's weight and balance procedures and flight
characteristics.
d. When Computing Weight and Balance. The pilot in command
must include the following factors. If this information is not
obtained, the pilot would experience considerable difficulty in
determining the actual loaded aircraft CG.
(1) The maximum allowable gross weight and the CG
limitations.
(2) The weight of all standard equipment which has been
removed (seats and door, etc.)
(3) The new empty weight and CG location.
(4) The weight and CG location when the aircraft is
fully loaded.
(5) The aircraft's weight and CG locations for
variations in the number of parachutists and fuel carried on each
flight.
(6) The weight and location of jumpers during each
phase of the flight in order to assure that the aircraft stays
within CG limits. The pilot in command should keep in mind that
the shifting weight distribution of skydivers as they gather at a
cabin door in preparation for exit will require a determination
of any adverse effects this will have on the aircraft's weight
and balance, controllability, and stability.
e. Suitable placards should be located in the aircraft to
help the pilot inform skydivers of the maximum approved loading
and weight distribution. These placards should be located where
they will be seen by anyone boarding the aircraft and clearly
show the maximum approved seating capacity and the load
distribution. However, since many parachutists are not familiar
with aircraft weight and balance procedures, it becomes the pilot
in command's responsibility to ensure that proper weight and
balance is maintained throughout all parachute jump operations.
Anyone desiring additional information concerning approval data
for any specific aircraft should contact the local FSDO (see
related information in paragraph 23.b).
f. Seatbelts and Approved Loading. FAR Section 91.14
permits persons aboard an aircraft for the purpose of
participating in sport parachuting activities to use the floor of
the aircraft for a seat. Seatbelts must be provided for each
person and their installation must be approved. The approved
number of persons which can be carried is found on the aircraft's
type certificate data sheet, supplemental type certificate data
sheet, Form 337 (field approval), or in the FAA-approved flight
manual.
g. Parachute Landing Zone. It is good practice for the
pilot to ensure that the parachute landing zone is plainly
visible from the aircraft before releasing parachutists.
h. Altitude Reporting. Report all altitudes to air traffic
control (ATC) in feet above MSL.
i. Flight Visibility and Clearance from Clouds. The pilot
and jumper are jointly responsible for complying with the flight
visibility and cloud clearance requirements of FAR Section
105.29. Aircraft flight under visual flight rules (VFR)
conditions and persons making parachute jumps require minimum
clearance from clouds and minimum visibility depending upon the
altitude at which the activity is taking place.
(1) For activities which are at or above 10,000 feet
MSL, the required minimum distance from clouds is 1,000 feet
under, 1,000 feet over, and 1 mile horizontally from clouds.
Flight visibility must be at least 5 miles.
(2) For activities which are at more than 1,200 feet
above the surface but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the required
minimum distance from clouds is 500 feet under, 1,000 feet over,
and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. Flight visibility must
be at least 3 miles.
Note: No person may make a parachute jump into or
through a cloud.
j. Radio Equipment Requirements. FAR Section 105.14
prescribes the two-way radio communications equipment
requirements for aircraft used for parachute jumps in or into
controlled airspace. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, radio
communications should be established with the ATC facility or
flight service station (FSS) at least 5 minutes before jumping
activity begins for the purpose of receiving information on known
air traffic in the vicinity of the jump area. The FAA recommends
that all jump aircraft be equipped with operable transponders
displaying the appropriate code as assigned by ATC when operating
in an area where radar service is provided. Transponders will
expedite and enhance the exchange of traffic information.
Jumping activity cannot begin until radio contact is established
and appropriate traffic information is issued. Additionally, an
uninterrupted watch should be maintained on the appropriate
frequency until jumping activity has ended. When jumping
activities are completed or discontinued, ATC should be informed
as soon as possible.
k. Authorization and Notification Requirements. Whether or
not oral authorization from ATC or a certificate of authorization
is required for a parachute jump depends upon the type of
airspace involved and the area where the parachutist intends to
land. The same criteria will determine the type of prejump
notification requirements. Appendix 1 is an easy reference table
parachutists can use to determine what authorization or
notification requirements are needed for various types of jumps.
The FAA recommends that anyone establishing a permanent drop zone
or a temporary jump site contact the air traffic facilities
nearest the site as early as possible. ATC personnel are in the
best position to provide information on arrival and departure
routes, airspace classifications, and other airspace operations
that may affect the efficient operation of a parachute landing
zone.
15. JUMPS OVER OR INTO CONGESTED AREAS OR OPEN AIR ASSEMBLIES OF
PERSONS. FAR Section 105.15 requires a certificate of
authorization for these jumps (except for emergencies and certain
Armed Forces' operations as provided in FAR Section 105.11). An
application for a certificate of authorization should be
submitted at least 4-working days before the intended jump. The
application must be submitted in triplicate on FAA Form 7711-2,
Certificate of Waiver or Authorization Application, to the FSDO
responsible for the area where the jump is to take place.
Applying as early as possible will aid the FAA in processing
these certificates.
a. The determination of whether the FAA will issue FAA Form
7711-1, Certificate of Waiver or Authorization, and the special
provisions will depend on the circumstances of each case. The
two main considerations for issuing an authorization will be the
documented skill and experience of the parachutist making the
jump and the size of the landing area. Examples of these
requirements are:
(1) Parachutists who hold a USPA Class C or D license
or a member of a Department of Defense (DOD)-sanctioned parachute
demonstration team must select a landing area that will permit
the jumper to land not closer than 50 feet from any spectator and
will not involve passing over persons on the surface at an
altitude of less than 250 feet.
(2) Parachutists who hold a USPA Class D license
or a member of a steerable DOD-sanctioned parachute demonstration
team, who certify that they will use a square main and reserve
canopy, should be permitted to exit over or land into a congested
area. Landing area restrictions as indicated in subparagraph
a(1) should apply. Parachutists with exhibition ratings, in
addition to being allowed to exit over or land into congested
areas, must not land closer than 15 feet from any spectator and
will not pass over persons on the surface at an altitude of less
than 50 feet.
b. The holder of the certificate of authorization is
required to brief the pilot in command of the aircraft and the
jumpers on the terms of the authorization.
c. The inspector might include a provision that requires
the pilot in command to use a specific ATC facility and radio
frequency.
d. If the applicant is unable to present satisfactory
evidence that he/she has the experience, skill, and knowledge
required for USPA/DOD credentials, the FAA inspector may require
a demonstration (not over a congested area) of comparable skill
before issuing the authorization.
e. The key to determine if an authorization is or is not
necessary is the word "into." The following examples may clarify
the intent of FAR Section 105.15 and help to determine when an
authorization is necessary.
(1) A jump will be at a town just east of a large lake.
The jumper wishes to exit the aircraft over the lake and drift
eastward to land in an open area. Authorization is not required.
(2) At the same town, the jumper wishes to change the
landing site to a school playground in the eastern part of town.
The playground is several acres in size, completely fenced in,
but surrounded by residential dwellings. Even though the landing
target can be placed 500 to 600 feet from the fence, the jump is
into a congested area. Authorization is required.
(3) An exhibition jump is planned for a county fair.
The fairgrounds are on the north edge of a town with clear, open
land on three sides. The jumpers plan to exit their aircraft on
one side of the fairground and land on the opposite side. This
is a drift-over jump. Authorization is not required.
(4) At the same fairgrounds, the target will be placed
in the middle of a racetrack, enclosed by a wire mesh fence, and
located near the center of the fairgrounds. The target is more
than 500 feet from the fence. This would be a jump into an open
air assembly of persons. Authorization is required.
(5) Jumps made into large areas, even though near or
within a populated area or near an open air assembly of persons,
do not require written FAA authorization. This provision applies
to open areas large enough to enable the parachutists to exit the
aircraft over the area and remain within the area during descent
and landing. Since at no time would a jumper be over a congested
area, jumps of this nature would not impose a public hazard.
However, parachutists should ensure that the landing area is
completely clear of assembled persons other than the ground crew
and other show performers.
16. JUMPS OVER OR ONTO AIRPORTS. FAR Section 105.17 requires
prior approval of the airport management for jumps made over or
onto an airport. However, a parachutist may drift over an
airport without prior approval if the chute is fully open, he/she
is at least 2,000 feet above the airport traffic pattern, and
he/she avoids creating a hazard to air traffic or to persons and
property on the surface.
17. JUMPS IN OR INTO CONTROL ZONES. FAR Section 105.19 requires
written authorization from the control tower for jumps in or into
a control zone with a functioning U.S.-operated tower.
Reasonable notice is desirable so that control tower personnel
can coordinate the jumps with expected traffic conditions. The
authorization and instructions issued by the tower for these
jumps are based on VFR and known air traffic and do not relieve
the skydiver or the pilot in command of the jump aircraft from
compliance with all air traffic and general operating rules.
When jumps in or into control zones include jumping over or onto
an airport, FAR Section 105.17 must also be complied with as
explained in paragraph 16.
18. JUMPS IN OR INTO AIRPORT RADAR SERVICE AREAS. FAR Section
105.20 requires an ATC authorization for jumps in or into an
airport radar service area. Each request for authorization
issued under this section must be submitted to the ATC tower at
the airport for which the airport radar service is designated.
19. JUMPS INTO OR WITHIN POSITIVE CONTROL AREAS AND TERMINAL
CONTROL AREAS. FAR Section 105.21 prohibits any person from
making a parachute jump and prohibits any pilot in command of an
aircraft from allowing a parachute jump to be made from that
aircraft in or into a positive control area or terminal control
area without, or in violation of, an authorization issued under
this section. Further, each request for an authorization issued
under this section must be submitted to the nearest ATC facility
or FSS.
20. JUMPS IN OR INTO OTHER AIRSPACE. FAR Section 105.23
prescribes the advance notification requirements for parachute
jumps in controlled and uncontrolled airspace other than those
previously covered in paragraphs 15 through 19. The ATC facility
or FSS nearest to the proposed jump site should be notified at
least 1 hour before the jump is to be made, but not more than 24
hours before the jump is to be completed.
21. NOTIFICATION OF AN EXTENDED PERIOD OF JUMPING. FAR Section
105.23(b) provides for ATC to accept a written notification from
a parachute jumping operation for a scheduled series of jumps to
be made over a stated period of time not exceed 12 calendar
months. Notification should be filed with the ATC facility at
least 15 days, but not more than 30 days, before the jumping
activity is to take place.
22. INFORMATION REQUIRED AND NOTICE OF CANCELLATION OR
POSTPONEMENT OF JUMP.
a. FAR Section 105.25 prescribes that applicants for an
authorization under FAR Section 105.19 or FAR Section 105.21 and
those submitting a notice under FAR Section 105.23 are to include
the following information in that application or notice.
(1) The date and time jumping will begin.
(2) The size of the parachute landing area expressed in
the nautical mile radius around the target.
(3) The location of the center of the parachute landing
area in relation to:
(i) The nearest very high frequency
omnidirectional range (VOR) facility in terms of the VOR radial
on which it is located, and its distance in nautical miles from
the VOR facility when that facility is 30 nautical miles or less
from the parachute landing area or drop zone.
(ii) The nearest airport, town, or city depicted
on the appropriate Coast and Geodetic Survey World Aeronautical
Chart (WAC), or Sectional Aeronautical Chart, when the nearest
VOR facility is more than 30 nautical miles from the center of
the parachute landing area or drop zone.
(4) The altitudes above the surface at which jumping
will take place.
(5) The duration of the intended jump.
(6) The name, address, and telephone number of the
person requesting the authorization or giving notice.
(7) The identification of the aircraft to be used.
(8) The radio frequencies, if any, available in the
aircraft.
b. Each person requesting an authorization under FAR
Section 105.19 or FAR Section 105.21, and each person submitting
a notice under FAR Section 105.23 must promptly notify the FAA
ATC facility or FSS from which it requested authorization or
which it notified if the proposed or scheduled jumping activity
is cancelled or postponed.
23. AIRCRAFT OPERATING AND AIRWORTHINESS REQUIREMENTS.
a. Procedure. Owners or operators of aircraft listed in
Appendix 2, who are interested in obtaining authorization and
operating limitations for these aircraft to be flown with the
door open or removed, should forward a written request to the
FSDO having jurisdiction over the area in which these operations
are to be conducted. The request should contain the following
information:
(1) Name and address of the registered owner(s) of the
aircraft.
(2) Make, model, serial, and registration numbers of the
aircraft.
(3) Place where the aircraft is normally based.
(4) Reason the aircraft is to be operated with a door
open or removed.
b. Installation and removal of equipment must be handled in
accordance with the applicable sections of FAR Part 43. The
original alteration to the jump configuration is required to be
performed by an appropriately certificated person and recorded in
the aircraft records. The equipment list and weight and balance
data are required to be revised to show both the jump
configuration and the standard configuration. Subsequent
conversions may be made by the pilot in command if the work falls
within the scope of preventive maintenance (see FAR Part 43,
Appendix A, paragraph (c)). The installation or removal of
equipment in an aircraft or the increase in passenger loads,
other than that already approved for that aircraft, requires some
form of FAA approval such as a type certificate data sheet,
supplemental type certificate data sheet, or FAA field approval,
if applicable. Anyone applying for approval to alter an aircraft
for parachute jumping operations should submit sufficient
evidence to the local FSDO to permit evaluation of the following:
(1) The effect of any aircraft alteration such as door
removal or external protuberances on the controllability or
handling qualities of the aircraft.
(2) The relationship of the maximum number of persons to
be carried aboard the aircraft to the emergency exit requirements
of FAR Section 91.607, safety belt requirements of FAR Section
91.107, and the aircraft's published weight and balance envelope
for takeoff and landing.
(3) The effect of the parachute jump exit procedures to
be used, and how they may affect the aircraft weight and balance
and controllability during jump operations. Suitable placards
will be required to define any special procedures needed to
maintain controllability.
/s/ William C. Withycombe
Acting Director, Flight Standards Service
APPENDIX 1. TABLE OF LOCATION OF JUMP/AUTHORIZATION/NOTIFICATION
Kind of When to Where to FAR
Location Authorization Apply Apply Section
of Jump Required or Notify or Notify Reference
Over or FAA Form 7711-2, Apply at FSDO having 105.15
into a Certificate of least jurisdiction
congested Waiver of 4-working over the area
area or Authorization days before where jump is
open air Application the jump to be made
assembly
of persons
Over or Prior Approval Apply before Airport 105.17
onto an jump management
airport
with or
without a
U.S.-operated
control tower
In or into a Authorization 1/ Apply before ATC tower 105.19
control zone jump having
with a jurisdiction
U.S.-operated over the
control tower control zone 2/
In or into a Authorization 1/ Apply before ATC tower at 105.20
airport radar jump the airport
service area for which
the airport
radar service
area is
designated
Into or Authorization 1/ Apply before Nearest FAA 105.21
within a jump ATC facility
positive or FSS 2/
control
area or
terminal
control area 3/
In or into None 1 hour before Nearest FAA 105.23
other jump is made, ATC facility
controlled but not more or FSS
airspace than 24 hours
before jumping
is to be
completed
Jump over Authorization 1/ Apply before The agency 105.27
or within jump in charge of
restricted the area
or prohibited
areas
Notes:
1/ Verbal authorization normally issued.
2/ Communication required with nearest FAA ATC facility or FSS
5 minutes before jump.
3/ Positive control area begins at 18,000 feet and extends
upward to 60,000 feet.
Note:
This table does not apply to jumps by the Armed Forces over
or within restricted areas that are under the control of Armed
Forces or during military operations in uncontrolled airspace.
APPENDIX 2. AIRCRAFT THAT MAY BE OPERATED WITH ONE CABIN DOOR
REMOVED
Aeronca 05B CESSNA 185 Series STC SA33SO
Aeronca 15AC STC SA4-1593 CESSNA 190 Series STC SA220WE
Beech D17S STC SA603SO CESSNA 195 Series STC SA1966SW
Beech AT-11 STC SA4WE CESSNA 206 Series STC SA1255WE
Beech 18 Series STC SA69CE (with Cessna accessory
Beech C-45 and TC-45 Series kit AK 206-1 installed)
STC SA 69CE CESSNA 207 Series
Beech 65-90 x CESSNA 208 Series
Beech 65-A90 x CESSNA 210 STC SA199WE
Beech 65-B90 x CESSNA (Ector) 305A STC SA353SW
Beech 65-C90 x CESSNA 337A STC SA190SO
Beech 65-E90 x CESSNA 402C STC SA1525NM
Beech Model 100 (all) x Champion (Aeronca) 7 Series
Beech Model A100 (all) x STC SA33CE
Beech Model B100 (all) Curtis Wright (Travel Air)
Beech Model 200 x STC SA209WE S-6000B
Beech Model 200C (all) x De Havilland DHC-6-300 STC
SA132RM
Beech Model 200T (all) x Douglas DC-3 (maximum airspeed
Beech Model 200CT x cabin passenger door
Beech Model B200 x removed 170 knots)
Beech Model B200C x Fairchild 24 series (R/H door)
Beech Model B200T x Helio 250
Beech Model B200CT x Helio 295
Beech Model 99 x Helio 391
Beech Model 99A x Helio 395
Beech Model A99A x Howard DGA-15 Series
Beech Model B99 x Larson (Luscombe) 8 Series (R/H
Beech Model C99 x door-maximum airspeed
100 MPH)
Beech Model A65 x Lockheed Model 12A
Beech Model A65-8200 x Lockheed 18-56 STC SA892SO
Beech Model A65-80 x Lockheed 402-2 (R/H rear door)
Beech Model A65-70 x Macchi AL 60 (R/H rear door)
Beech Model A65-B80 x Maule M4, M-4-210 STC SA258CE
Beech Model A36 x Noorduyn UC-64 Series (rear
door)
Beech Model A36TC * Piper PA-12 Series *
Beech Model B36TC x Piper PA-18 Series *
Beech Model 58/58A * Piper PA-20 Series *
Centaur 101 Piper PA-22 Series *
Cessna 120 Series Piper PA-28 140-160-180-235 *
Cessna 140 Series Piper PA-32 Series *
Cessna 150 Series Piper PA-32R Series *
Cessna 170 Series Piper PA-34 Series *
Cessna 172 Series Stinson SR-7B (R/H door)
Cessna 175 Series STC SA49CE Stinson V-77
Cessna 177 STC SA466SO Taylorcraft BC 12-D
Cessna 180 Series STC SA168SW Temco (Luscombe) 11A (R/H door)
Cessna 182 Series STC SA40CE Universal (Stinson) 108 Series
x = Procedures contained in aircraft flight manual supplement.
* = Procedures contained in aircraft pilot operating handbook.
Note: Some of the above aircraft may require installation of
deflectors to reduce vibration while being operated with a door
removed. Aircraft must be operated in accordance with approved
procedures. For information regarding the holder of a specific
supplemental type certificate or field approval, contact the
local Flight Standards District Office or Manufacturing
Inspection District Office.
OFFICE OF MANAGEMENT AND BUDGET (OMB 2120-0027). The reporting
and/or recordkeeping requirements contained in paragraph 23 of
this AC and Appendix 1 have been approved by the OMB in
accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1980.
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